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Sickness Absence

Sickness Absence

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I thought that I may add a little more - could anyone help me understand the 12-month rolling period calculation.  Is there a calculator that I can use - after 5-years service the occupational sick scheme gives employees 8-weeks at full pay and 4-weeks at half pay.  The employee had been sick during 2009 for another unrelated hospital procedure and then became unwell from 26 July 2010, returned to work on 2 Feb 11, sick again 11 to 22 Jul 11 and sick again 6 to 9 Dec 11.

From mid Dec 10 the employee received SSP until 1 Feb 11.  I would like to know as it is not clear in our policy at what point the employee should start to receive fullpay for more periods of absence.  Should the employee have received SSP for the July and Dec 11 absences?  Is there an easy way to calculate the employees entitlement to full or half pay?  Any help is very much appreciated.

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By covuni
20th Dec 2011 14:47

If it's the same as we operate our occupational sick pay scheme, the 12 months 'rolling' period simply means you look at the 12 months immediately prior to the first day of absence. So, for example, when your employee went sick on 26th July 2010 you should have been looking at what sick pay he had received since 27th July 2009. You haven't said what the dates of his 2009 absence were, but let's say he had 2 weeks sick and it was after 27th July - so at the start of the July 2010 absence you would count back and find that he has had 2 weeks on full pay in the last 12 months , so his maximum entitlement for the new absence would be 6 weeks full pay followed by 4 weeks half pay.

The rules for SSP are completely separate. I believe SSP can last for a maximum of 28 weeks for a single period of absence, and if an absence starts within 8 weeks (?) of a previous absence the two absences are counted as being 'linked', so that SSP would be payable from the first day of the new absence, without having the usual three waiting days.

Hope this helps.

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By lenmoore
20th Dec 2011 17:25

Thank you covuni,

I have a mental block in understanding the scenario where the employee had exhausted the 8 weeks full pay and 4 weeks half pay by the end of Nov 11.  From 1 Dec 10 the employee received only SSP until 1 Feb 11, returning to full time working hours from 2 Feb 11.  I paid full pay durng the 2-weeks sickness absence (11 to 22 Jul 11).  Was I wrong - should those 2 weeks have been paid at SSP of full pay?  Counting back from 6 Dec 11 to 6 Dec 10 the employee was off sick 57 days.  To make it simple (if possible) my head struggles to accept at what point the employee having accessed the full occupational sick pay and more, do they requalify to access the 8/4 weeks pay again.  I am sorry if I am not explaining myself well enough.  

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